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The CRISC certification is an important credential for IT professionals who want to advance their careers and demonstrate their expertise in risk management and information systems control. By acquiring this certification, professionals can enhance their credibility and demonstrate their commitment to maintaining the highest standards of excellence in their field.
The CRISC certification exam is designed for professionals who have experience in identifying and managing risks within the information systems environment. This includes IT professionals, risk management professionals, compliance professionals, and business analysts, among others. CRISC exam evaluates the candidate's knowledge of risk management principles, as well as their ability to apply these principles in real-world situations.
NEW QUESTION # 895
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring?
- A. impact due to failure of control
- B. Frequency of failure of control
- C. Cost-benefit analysis of automation
- D. Contingency plan for residual risk
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Automation of control monitoring is the application of technology to allow continuous or high-frequency, automated monitoring of controls to validate the effectiveness of controls designed to mitigate risk1.
* Automation of control monitoring can provide benefits such as increased test coverage, improved timeliness, reduced risk velocity, greater visibility, improved consistency, and the ability to identify trends23.
* However, automation of control monitoring also involves costs such as the acquisition, implementation, maintenance, and updating of the technology, as well as the training and support of the staff who use
* it45.
* Therefore, the primary consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring is the cost-benefit analysis of automation, which compares the expected benefits and costs of automation and determines whether the benefits outweigh the costs or vice versa45.
* The other options are not the primary consideration, but rather secondary or tertiary factors that may influence the decision to automate or not. For example, the impact due to failure of control and the frequency of failure of control are aspects of the risk assessment that may indicate the need for automation, but they do not provide the basis for evaluating the feasibility and desirability of automation45. Similarly, the contingency plan for residual risk is a component of the risk response that may include automation as a risk mitigation strategy, but it does not measure the effectiveness and efficiency of automation45. References =
* 2: A Practical Approach to Continuous Control Monitoring, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2015
* 3: Continuous Controls Monitoring: The Next Generation Of Controls Testing, Forbes Technology Council, June 2, 2022
* 1: Making Continuous Controls Monitoring Work for Everyone, ISACA Now Blog, June 13, 2022
* 4: Controls Automation - Monitoring vs. Operation - Part 3, Turnkey Consulting, July 29, 2021
* 5: What's Continuous Control Monitoring and Why Is It Important?, MetricStream Blog, October 15,
2019
NEW QUESTION # 896
A review of an organization s controls has determined its data loss prevention {DLP) system is currently
failing to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data. Which of the following would be MOST
impacted?
- A. Key risk indicators (KRls)
- B. Inherent risk
- C. Residual risk
- D. Risk appetite
Answer: C
Explanation:
Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying controls to mitigate the inherent risk. Inherent risk is the
risk that exists before considering the controls. Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metricsthat measure the level
and impact of risks. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in
pursuit of its objectives. The failure of the data loss prevention (DLP) system to detect outgoing emails
containing credit card data would most impact the residual risk, because it would increase the likelihood and
impact of data leakage, data loss, and data exfiltration incidents. These incidents could cause financial,
reputational, legal, and regulatory damages to the organization. The failure of the DLP system would also
affect the KRIs, as they would show a higher level of risk exposure and a lower level of control effectiveness.
However, the KRIs are not the risk itself, but rather the indicators of the risk. The failure of the DLP system
would not directly impact the inherent risk or the risk appetite, as they are independent of the controls. The
inherent risk would remain the same, as it is based on the nature and value of the data and the threats and
vulnerabilities that exist. The risk appetite would also remain the same, as it is based on the organization's
culture, strategy, and stakeholder expectations. Therefore, the most impacted factor would be the residual risk,
as it reflects the actual risk level that the organization faces after applying the controls. References = Risk IT
Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 131
NEW QUESTION # 897
Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the effectiveness
of disaster recovery processes?
- A. Percentage of IT systems recovered within the mean time to restore (MTTR) during the disaster
recovery test - B. Percentage of IT systems included in the disaster recovery test scope
- C. Percentage of IT systems meeting the recovery time objective (RTO) during the disaster recovery test
- D. Percentage of issues arising from the disaster recovery test resolved on time
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most important key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the effectiveness of disaster recovery
processes is the percentage of IT systems meeting the recovery time objective (RTO) during the disaster
recovery test. The RTO is the maximum acceptable time that a system or process can be unavailable after a
disruption. The disaster recovery test is a simulation of a disaster scenario to evaluate the readiness and
capability of the organization to restore its critical functions and systems. By measuring the percentage ofIT
systems meeting the RTO during the test, the organization can assess how well the disaster recovery processes
meet the predefined objectives and standards. Percentage of IT systems recovered within the mean time to
restore (MTTR), percentage of issues arising from the disaster recovery test resolved on time, and percentage
of IT systems included in the disaster recovery test scope are other possible KPIs, but they are not as
important as the percentage of IT systems meeting the RTO. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and
Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC
Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
NEW QUESTION # 898
An organization recently implemented a cybersecurity awareness program that includes phishing simulation exercises for all employees. What type of control is being utilized?
- A. Compensating
- B. Deterrent
- C. Preventive
- D. Detective
Answer: B
Explanation:
Implementing a cybersecurity awareness program that includes phishing simulation exercises is an example of a deterrent control.
Deterrent Control:
Definition: Deterrent controls are designed to discourage individuals from performing undesirable activities by making them aware of the consequences or increasing the perceived risk of detection.
Phishing Simulations: By conducting phishing simulations, employees are made aware of phishing threats and are educated on recognizing and avoiding such attacks. This reduces the likelihood of them falling victim to real phishing attempts.
Purpose and Impact:
Behavioral Change: The primary goal is to change the behavior of employees, making them more vigilant and less likely to engage with phishing emails.
Awareness and Training: These simulations act as a continuous training tool, reinforcing the importance of cybersecurity and deterring careless actions.
References:
The CISM Review Manual and various cybersecurity guidelines highlight phishing simulations as an effective deterrent control to enhance employee awareness and reduce the risk of successful phishing attacks .
NEW QUESTION # 899
During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective.
Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
- A. Determine the root cause of the control failures.
- B. Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.
- C. Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.
- D. Escalate the control failures to senior management.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The control evaluation phase of a risk assessment is the phase where the risk practitioner evaluates the
effectiveness and efficiency of the existing or planned controls that mitigate the identified risks. Controls are
the actions or measures that reduce the likelihood or impact of the risks to an acceptable level. The control
evaluation phase involves testing, reviewing, and auditing the controls, and identifying any gaps or
weaknesses that need to be addressed. If the control evaluation phase reveals that multiple controls are
ineffective, the risk practitioner's first course of action should be to determine the root cause of the control
failures. The root cause is the underlying or fundamental reason that leads to the problem or issue, such as the
controlfailure. By determining the root cause of the control failures, the risk practitioner can understand why
the controls are not working as intended, and what factors or variables are influencing the control
performance. This will help the risk practitioner to identify and implement the most appropriate and effective
risk response strategy and actions, such as recommending risk remediation, comparing the residual risk, or
escalating the control failures. The other options are not the first course of action, as they involve different
steps or outcomes of the risk management process:
Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls means that the risk practitioner suggests the actions
or measures that can improve or restore the effectiveness of the controls, such as by modifying, replacing, or
adding the controls. This may be a useful step in the risk management process, but it is not the first course of
action, as it may not address the root cause of the control failures, or may not be feasible or efficient for the
enterprise's needs.
Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite means that the risk practitioner evaluates the level of risk
that remains after considering the existing or planned controls, and compares it with the amount and type of
risk that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. This may be a helpful step in the risk
management process, but it is not the first course of action, as it may not reflect the true or current level of
risk exposure, or may not account for the uncertainties or complexities of the risks or the controls.
Escalate the control failures to senior management means that the risk practitioner communicates the control
failures to the senior leaders of the enterprise, who oversee the enterprise-wide risk management program, and
provide guidance and direction to the risk owners and practitioners. This may be a necessary step in the risk
management process, but it is not the first course of action, as it may not provide sufficient or timely
information or action to address the control failures, or may not reflect the urgency or priority of the control
failures. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section
2.3.3.1, pp. 62-63.
NEW QUESTION # 900
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing an organization's risk taxonomy?
- A. Leading industry frameworks
- B. IT strategy
- C. Regulatory requirements
- D. Business context
Answer: D
Explanation:
A risk taxonomy is a classification or categorization system that defines and organizes the risks that may affect the organization's objectives and operations. It includes the risk domains, categories, subcategories, elements, attributes, etc., and the relationships and dependencies among them. A risk taxonomy can help the organization to identify, analyze, evaluate, and communicate the risks, and to align them with the organization's strategy and culture.
The most important consideration when developing an organization's risk taxonomy is the business context, which is the set of internal and external factors and conditions that influence and shape the organization's objectives, operations, and performance. It includes the organization's vision, mission, values, goals, stakeholders, resources, capabilities, processes, systems, etc., as well as the market, industry, regulatory, social, environmental, etc., factors and conditions that affect the organization.
Considering the business context when developing an organization's risk taxonomy ensures that the risk taxonomy is relevant, appropriate, and proportional to the organization's needs and expectations, and that it supports the organization's objectives and values. It also helps to ensure that the risk taxonomy is consistent and compatible with the organization's governance, risk management, and control functions, and that it reflects the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.
The other options are not the most important considerations when developing an organization's risk taxonomy, because they do not address the fundamental question of whether the risk taxonomy is suitable and acceptable for the organization.
Leading industry frameworks are the established or recognized models or standards that provide the principles, guidelines, and best practices for the organization's governance, risk management, and control functions. Leading industry frameworks can provide useful references and benchmarks when developing an organization's risk taxonomy, but they are not the most important consideration, because they may not be specific or applicable to the organization's business context, and they may not reflect the organization's objectives and values.
Regulatory requirements are the rules or obligations that the organization must comply with, as imposed or enforced by the relevant authorities or regulators. Regulatory requirements can provide important inputs and constraints when developing an organization's risk taxonomy, but they are not the most important consideration, because they may not be comprehensive or sufficient for the organization's business context, and they may not support the organization's objectives and values.
IT strategy is the plan or direction that the organization follows to achieve its IT objectives and to align its IT resources and capabilities with its business objectives and needs. IT strategy can provide important inputs and alignment when developing an organization's risk taxonomy, but it is not the most important consideration, because it may not cover all the relevant or significant risks that may affect the organization's business context, and it may not reflect the organization's objectives and values. References = ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-
59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 175 CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
NEW QUESTION # 901
A service provider is managing a client's servers. During an audit of the service, a noncompliant control is discovered that will not be resolved before the next audit because the client cannot afford the downtime required to correct the issue. The service provider's MOST appropriate action would be to:
- A. insist that the remediation occur for the benefit of other customers
- B. make a note for this item in the next audit explaining the situation
- C. develop a risk remediation plan overriding the client's decision
- D. ask the client to document the formal risk acceptance for the provider
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 902
A risk practitioner is utilizing a risk heat map during a risk assessment. Risk events that are coded with the
same color will have a similar:
- A. risk score
- B. risk response
- C. risk impact
- D. risk likelihood.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A risk heat map is a graphical tool that displays the risk events in a matrix based on their likelihood and
impact. Risk events that are coded with the same color will have a similar risk likelihood, which is the
probability or frequency of occurrence of a risk event. Risk score, riskimpact, and risk response are other
possible attributes of risk events, but they are not represented by the color coding in a risk
heatmap. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification
Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
NEW QUESTION # 903
Which of the following is BEST used to aggregate data from multiple systems to identify abnormal behavior?
- A. SIEM systems
- B. Endpoint detection and response (EDR)
- C. Cyber threat intelligence
- D. Anti-malware software
Answer: A
Explanation:
Understanding the Question:
* The question asks which tool is best for aggregating data from multiple systems to identify abnormal behavior.
Analyzing the Options:
* A. Cyber threat intelligence: Provides information on potential threats but does not aggregate data from multiple systems for behavior analysis.
* B. Anti-malware software: Focuses on detecting and removing malware, not aggregating data from multiple sources.
* C. Endpoint detection and response (EDR): Monitors endpoints for suspicious activity but is more limited in scope compared to SIEM systems.
* D. SIEM systems: Security Information and Event Management systems collect, aggregate, and analyze data from various sources to identify and respond to abnormal behavior.
Detailed Explanation:
* SIEM Systems: SIEM systems are designed to aggregate and analyze security data from multiple sources such as network devices, servers, and applications. They provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by hardware and software.
* Functionality: SIEM systems use advanced analytics to correlate data from different sources and detect patterns that indicate abnormal behavior. This makes them highly effective in identifying and responding to security incidents.
* References:
* CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Reporting, mentions the importance of centralized monitoring systems like SIEM for effective risk management.
NEW QUESTION # 904
An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises.
Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?
- A. Conduct security awareness training.
- B. Employ security guards.
- C. Require security access badges.
- D. Install security cameras.
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Social engineering is a technique that involves manipulating or deceiving people into performing actions or divulging information that may compromise the security of an organization or its data12.
* Entry into an organization's secured physical premises is a form of physical access that allows an unauthorized individual to access, steal, or damage the organization's assets, such as equipment, documents, or systems34.
* The best way to prevent future occurrences of social engineering entry into an organization's secured physical premises is to conduct security awareness training, which is an educational program that aims to equip the organization's employees with the knowledge and skills they need to protect the organization's data and sensitive information from cyber threats, such as hacking, phishing, or other breaches56.
* Security awareness training is the best way because it helps the employees to recognize and resist the common and emerging social engineering techniques, such as tailgating, impersonation, or pretexting, that may be used by the attackers to gain physical access to the organization's premises56.
* Security awareness training is also the best way because it fosters a culture of security and responsibility among the employees, and encourages them to follow the best practices and policies for physical security, such as locking the doors, verifying the identity of visitors, or reporting any suspicious activities or incidents56.
* The other options are not the best way, but rather possible measures or controls that may supplement or enhance the security awareness training. For example:
* Employing security guards is a measure that involves hiring or contracting professional personnel who are trained and authorized to monitor, patrol, and protect the organization's premises from unauthorized access or intrusion78. However, this measure is not the best way because it may not be sufficient or effective to prevent or deter all types of social engineering attacks, especially if the attackers are able to bypass, deceive, or coerce the security guards78.
* Installing security cameras is a control that involves using electronic devices that capture and record the visual images of the organization's premises, and provide evidence or alerts of any unauthorized access or activity . However, this control is not the best way because it is reactive rather than proactive, and may not prevent or stop the social engineering attacks before they cause any harm or damage to the organization .
* Requiring security access badges is a control that involves using physical or electronic cards that identify and authenticate the employees or authorized visitors who are allowed to enter the organization's premises, and restrict or deny the access to anyone else . However, this control is not the best way because it may not be foolproof or reliable to prevent or detect the social
* engineering attacks, especially if the attackers are able to steal, forge, or clone the security access badges . References =
* 1: What is Social Engineering? | Types & Examples of Social Engineering Attacks1
* 2: Social Engineering: What It Is and How to Prevent It | Digital Guardian2
* 3: What is physical Social Engineering and why is it important? - Integrity3603
* 4: What Is Tailgating (Piggybacking) In Cyber Security? - Wlan Labs4
* 5: What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky5
* 6: Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US6
* 7: Security Guard - Wikipedia7
* 8: Security Guard Services - Allied Universal8
* : Security Camera - Wikipedia
* : Security Camera Systems - The Home Depot
* : Access Badge - Wikipedia
* : Access Control Systems - HID Global
NEW QUESTION # 905
Fred is the project manager of a large project in his organization. Fred needs to begin planning the risk management plan with the project team and key stakeholders. Which plan risk management process tool and technique should Fred use to plan risk management?
- A. Data gathering and representation techniques
- B. Planning meetings and analysis
- C. Variance and trend analysis
- D. Information gathering techniques
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There is only one tool and technique available for Fred to plan risk management: planning meetings and analysis. Planning Meeting and Analysis is a tool and technique in the Plan Risk Management process.
Planning meetings are organized by the project teams to develop the risk management plan. Attendees at these meetings include the following:
Project manager
Selected project team members
Stakeholders
Anybody in the organization with the task to manage risk planning
Sophisticated plans for conducting the risk management activities are defined in these meetings, responsibilities related to risk management are assigned, and risk contingency reserve application approaches are established and reviewed.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: These are not plan risk management tools and techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 906
An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?
- A. The organization's vendor management office
- B. The organization's management
- C. The third party s management
- D. The control operators at the third party
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Outsourcing IT security operations is a common practice that can provide benefits such as cost savings, access to specialized skills, and improved service quality12. However, outsourcing also introduces risks such as loss of control, dependency, contractual issues, and service failures12.
* When an organization outsources its IT security operations to a third party, it does not transfer the accountability for the risk associated with the outsourced operations. Accountability is the obligation to answer for the execution of one's assigned responsibilities34.
* The organization's management is ultimately accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations, as they are responsible for defining the organization's risk appetite, strategy, and objectives, and for ensuring that the organization's IT security operations are aligned with them34.
* The organization's management is also accountable for selecting, contracting, and overseeing the third party, and for ensuring that the third party meets the agreed service levels, standards, and compliance requirements34.
* The organization's management is also accountable for monitoring and reporting the risk associated with the outsourced operations, and for taking corrective actions when necessary34.
* The other options are not ultimately accountable, but rather have different roles and responsibilities in relation to the outsourced operations. For example:
* The third party's management is responsible for delivering the IT security services according to the contract, and for managing the risk within their own organization34. They are accountable to the organization's management, but not to the organization's stakeholders.
* The control operators at the third party are responsible for implementing and operating the IT security controls according to the service specifications, and for reporting any issues or incidents to the organization's management34. They are accountable to the third party's management, but not to the organization's management or stakeholders.
* The organization's vendor management office is responsible for facilitating the relationship between the organization and the third party, and for supporting the organization's management in
* the outsourcing process34. They are accountable to the organization's management, but not for the risk associated with the outsourced operations. References =
* 1: Outsourcing IT Security: A Risk Management Perspective, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2019
* 2: The Cyber Security Risks Of Outsourcing, Cybersecurity Intelligence, January 4, 2022
* 3: Accountability for Information Security Roles and Responsibilities, Part 1, ISACA Journal, Volume
5, 2019
* 4: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
NEW QUESTION # 907
An organization recently implemented a cybersecurity awareness program that includes phishing sim-ulation exercises for all employees. What type of control is being utilized?
- A. Compensating
- B. Deterrent
- C. Preventive
- D. Detective
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Cybersecurity Awareness Program:
* Phishing Simulations: These exercises are designed to test employees' ability to recognize and respond to phishing attempts. They serve as a deterrent by raising awareness and making employees more vigilant.
* Deterrent Controls:
* Definition: Deterrent controls are designed to discourage potential attackers or risky behavior by creating awareness of consequences.
* Application: Phishing simulations act as deterrent controls by educating employees and reducing the likelihood of successful phishing attacks through increased awareness.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* Preventive: Preventive controls aim to stop incidents before they occur. Phishing simulations do not prevent but rather educate.
* Detective: Detective controls identify and respond to incidents after they occur. Phishing simulations are proactive rather than reactive.
* Compensating: Compensating controls provide alternative measures when primary controls are not feasible. Phishing simulations are not compensating but directly address phishing risk.
* Best Practices:
* Regular Simulations: Conduct regular phishing simulations to maintain high levels of awareness.
* Feedback and Training: Provide immediate feedback and additional training to employees who fail simulations.
References:
* Sybex CISSP Official Study Guide: Details how phishing simulations serve as deterrent controls by educating and preparing employees against phishing attacks .
* CRISC Review Manual: Discusses the role of awareness programs and simulations in enhancing security posture through deterrent measures .
NEW QUESTION # 908
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes?
- A. Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process
- B. Number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test
- C. Number of current test plans and procedures
- D. Percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes is the percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives.
Recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum acceptable time period within which a business process or an IT service must be restored after a disruption. Recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time before the disruption. The percentage of processes recovered within the RTO and RPO indicates how well the disaster recovery test meets the business continuity and recovery requirements and expectations, and how effectively the disaster recovery plan and procedures are executed.
The percentage of processes recovered within the RTO and RPO can also help to identify the gaps, weaknesses, and opportunities for improvement in the disaster recovery capabilities. Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process, number of current test plans and procedures, and number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test are not as good as the percentage of processes recovered within the RTO and RPO, as they do not directly measure the achievement of the recovery objectives, and may not reflect the actual impact and performance of the disaster recovery test. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 130.
NEW QUESTION # 909
The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:
- A. identify compensating controls.
- B. reduce risk to an acceptable level.
- C. minimize residual risk.
- D. reduce risk factors.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 910
Which of The following would offer the MOST insight with regard to an organization's risk culture?
- A. Risk management procedures
- B. Senior management interviews
- C. Risk management framework
- D. Benchmark analyses
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 911
Which of the following is NOT true for risk governance?
- A. Risk governance requires reporting once a year.
- B. Risk governance seeks to reduce risk exposure and vulnerability by filling gaps in risk policy.
- C. Risk governance is a systemic approach to decision making processes associated to natural and technological risks.
- D. Risk governance is based on the principles of cooperation, participation, mitigation and sustainability, and is adopted to achieve more effective risk management.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
Risk governance is a continuous life cycle that requires regular reporting and ongoing review, not once a year.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: These are true for risk governance.
NEW QUESTION # 912
......
To be eligible for the CRISC certification exam, candidates must have a minimum of three years of experience in IT risk management and information systems controls. Candidates must also adhere to the ISACA Code of Ethics and meet the continuing professional education (CPE) requirements. The CRISC certification is valid for three years, and certified professionals must earn 120 CPE credits during the certification cycle to maintain their certification. The CRISC certification is a valuable asset for professionals who want to enhance their skills and knowledge in risk management and information systems controls and advance their careers in this field.
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