[Mar 17, 2023] TestKingFree CRISC dumps & Isaca Certificaton sure practice dumps
ISACA CRISC Actual Questions and Braindumps
NEW QUESTION 530
Which of the following is MOST important to the integrity of a security log?
- A. Least privilege access
- B. Inability to edit
- C. Encryption
- D. Ability to overwrite
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION 531
Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern for an IT risk practitioner when an employees.....
- A. The organization's structure has not been updated
- B. Company equipment has not been retained by IT
- C. Unnecessary access permissions have not been removed.
- D. Job knowledge was not transferred to employees m the former department
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 532
A control owner has completed a year-long project To strengthen existing controls. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:
- A. verify cost-benefit of the new controls betng implemented.
- B. update the risk register to reflect the correct level of residual risk.
- C. conduct and document a business impact analysis (BIA).
- D. ensure risk monitoring for the project is initiated.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 533
Which of the following is an administrative control?
- A. Session timeout
- B. Water detection
- C. Reasonableness check
- D. Data loss prevention program
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION 534
You work as a project manager for TechSoft Inc. You are working with the project stakeholders on the qualitative risk analysis process in your project. You have used all the tools to the qualitative risk analysis process in your project. Which of the following techniques is NOT used as a tool in qualitative risk analysis process?
- A. Risk Urgency Assessment
- B. Risk Data Quality Assessment
- C. Risk Categorization
- D. Risk Reassessment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You will not need the Risk Reassessment technique to perform qualitative risk analysis. It is one of the techniques used to monitor and control risks.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: The tools and techniques for Qualitative Risk Analysis process are as follows:
Risk Probability and Impact Assessment: Risk probability assessment investigates the chances of a
particular risk to occur.
Risk Impact Assessment investigates the possible effects on the project objectives such as cost,
quality, schedule, or performance, including positive opportunities and negative threats.
Probability and Impact Matrix: Estimation of risk's consequence and priority for awareness is conducted
by using a look-up table or the probability and impact matrix. This matrix specifies the mixture of probability and impact that directs to rating the risks as low, moderate, or high priority.
Risk Data Quality Assessment: Investigation of quality of risk data is a technique to calculate the
degree to which the data about risks are useful for risk management.
Risk Categorization: Risks to the projects can be categorized by sources of risk, the area of project
affected and other valuable types to decide the areas of the project most exposed to the effects of uncertainty.
Risk Urgency Assessment: Risks that requires near-term responses are considered more urgent to
address.
Expert Judgment: It is required to categorize the probability and impact of each risk to determine its
location in the matrix.
NEW QUESTION 535
Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has implemented IT performance requirements?
- A. Service level agreements (SLA)
- B. Vendor references
- C. Accountability matrix
- D. Benchmarking data
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 536
You are the product manager in your enterprise. You have identified that new technologies, products and services are introduced in your enterprise time-to-time. What should be done to prevent the efficiency and effectiveness of controls due to these changes?
- A. Explanation:
As new technologies, products and services are introduced, compliance requirements become more complex and strict; business processes and related information flows change over time. These changes can often affect the efficiency and effectiveness of controls. Formerly effective controls become inefficient, redundant or obsolete and have to be removed or replaced. Therefore, the monitoring process has to receive timely feedback from risk assessments and through key risk indicators (KRIs) to ensure an effective control life cycle. - B. Nothing, efficiency and effectiveness of controls are not affected by these changes
- C. Add more controls
- D. Perform Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
- E. Receive timely feedback from risk assessments and through key risk indicators, and update controls
Answer: E
Explanation:
is incorrect. Efficiency and effectiveness of controls are not affected by the changes in technology or product, so some measure should be taken. Answer: B is incorrect. Most of the time, the addition of controls results in degradation of the efficiency and profitability of a process without adding an equitable level of corresponding risk mitigation, hence better controls are adopted in place of adding more controls. Answer: C is incorrect. A BIA is a discovery process meant to uncover the inner workings of any process. It helps to identify about actual procedures, shortcuts, workarounds and the types of failure that may occur. It involves determining the purpose of the process, whoperforms the process and its output. It also involves determining the value of the process output to the enterprise.
NEW QUESTION 537
An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?
- A. Business process owner
- B. The service provider
- C. Vendor risk manager
- D. Legal counsel
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 538
Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:
- A. minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment
- B. build a threat profile of the organization for management review
- C. provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions
- D. aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION 539
If one says that the particular control or monitoring tool is sustainable, then it refers to what ability?
- A. The ability to ensure the control remains in place when it fails
- B. The ability to be applied in same manner throughout the organization
- C. The ability to protect itself from exploitation or attack
- D. The ability to adapt as new elements are added to the environment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sustainability of the controls or monitoring tools refers to its ability to function as expected over time or when changes are made to the environment.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Sustainability ensures that controls changes with the conditions, so as not to fail in any circumstances.
Hence this in not a valid answer.
C: This is not a valid answer.
D: This is not a valid definition for defining sustainability of a tool.
NEW QUESTION 540
You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis.
Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is?
- A. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event.
- B. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
- C. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
- D. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest impact on the project objectives.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. It is performed on risk that have been prioritized through the qualitative risk analysis process.
Incorrect Answers:
A: While somewhat true, this statement does not completely define the quantitative risk analysis process.
B: This is actually the definition of qualitative risk analysis.
D: This is not a valid statement about the quantitative risk analysis process. Risk response planning is a separate project management process.
NEW QUESTION 541
Which of the following is the MOST common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider?
- A. Denial of service attacks
- B. Combining incompatible duties
- C. Lack of technical expertise
- D. Unauthorized data usage
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION 542
Which of the following aspects are included in the Internal Environment Framework of COSO ERM?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
- A. Enterprise's integrity and ethical values
- B. Enterprise's human resource standards
- C. Enterprise's working environment
- D. Enterprise's risk appetite
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
The internal environment for risk management is the foundational level of the COSO ERM framework, which describes the philosophical basics of managing risks within the implementing enterprise. The different aspects of the internal environment include the enterprise's:
* Philosophy on risk management
* Risk appetite
* Attitudes of Board of Directors
* Integrity and ethical values
* Commitment to competence
* Organizational structure
* Authority and responsibility
* Human resource standards
NEW QUESTION 543
Which of the following would be a weakness in procedures for controlling the migration of changes to production libraries?
- A. A synchronized migration of executable and source code from the test environment to the production environment is allowed.
- B. Only operations personnel are authorized to access production libraries.
- C. The programming project leader solely reviews test results before approving the transfer to production.
- D. Test and production programs are in distinct libraries.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 544
Which of the following is the MOST important use of KRIs?
- A. Providing an indication of the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance
- B. Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends
- C. Providing a backward-looking view on risk events that have occurred
- D. Providing an early warning signal
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
Key Risk Indicators are the prime monitoring indicators of the enterprise. KRIs are highly relevant and possess a high probability of predicting or indicating important risk. KRIs help in avoiding excessively large number of risk indicators to manage and report that a large enterprise may have.
As KRIs are the indicators of risk, hence its most important function is to effectively give an early warning signal that a high risk is emerging to enable management to take proactive action before the risk actually becomes a loss.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is one of the important functions of KRIs which can help management to improve but is not as important as giving early warning.
C: KRIs provide an indication of the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance through metric setting, but this is not as important as giving early warning.
D: This is not as important as giving early warning.
NEW QUESTION 545
You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share information on the project risks?
- A. Explanation:
The Communications Management Plan defines, in regard to risk management, who will be available to share information on risks and responses throughout the project. The Communications Management Plan aims to define the communication necessities for the project and how the information will be circulated. The Communications Management Plan sets the communication structure for the project. This structure provides guidance for communication throughout the project's life and is updated as communication needs change. The Communication Managements Plan identifies and defines the roles of persons concerned with the project. It includes a matrix known as the communication matrix to map the communication requirements of the project. - B. Communications Management Plan
- C. Resource Management Plan
- D. Risk Management Plan
- E. Stakeholder management strategy
Answer: B
Explanation:
is incorrect. The stakeholder management strategy does not address risk communications. Answer: A is incorrect. The Risk Management Plan defines risk identification, analysis, response, and monitoring. Answer: D is incorrect. The Resource Management Plan does not define risk communications.
NEW QUESTION 546
Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk?
- A. Level of residual risk
- B. Cost-benefit analysis
- C. Sensitivity analysis
- D. Risk appetite
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION 547
Which of the following is MOST important to communicate to senior management during the initial implementation of a risk management program?
- A. Risk ownership
- B. Best practices
- C. Desired risk level
- D. Regulatory compliance
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 548
An organization has been notified that a dis grunted, terminated IT administrator has tried to break into the corporate network. Which of the following discoveries should be of GREATEST concern to the organization?
- A. A brute force attack has been detected
- B. Authentication logs have been disabled
- C. An increase in support request has been observed
- D. An external vulnerability scan has been detected
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation
NEW QUESTION 549
The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:
- A. assessing impact to the strategic plan.
- B. soliciting input from risk management experts.
- C. aligning with industry best practices.
- D. evaluating the cost of risk response.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 550
Upon learning that the number of failed back-up attempts continually exceeds the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:
- A. inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions
- B. adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance
- C. keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal
- D. initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 551
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You have declined a proposed change request because of the risk associated with the proposed change request. Where should the declined change request be documented and stored?
- A. Project archives
- B. Project document updates
- C. Explanation:
The change request log records the status of all change requests, approved or declined. The change request log is used as an account for change requests and as a means of tracking their disposition on a current basis. The change request log develops a measure of consistency into the change management process. It encourages common inputs into the process and is a common estimation approach for all change requests. As the log is an important component of project requirements, it should be readily available to the project team members responsible for project delivery. It should be maintained in a file with read-only access to those who are not responsible for approving or disapproving project change requests. - D. Lessons learned
- E. Change request log
Answer: E
Explanation:
is incorrect. Lessons learned are not the correct place to document the status of a declined, or approved, change request. Answer:B is incorrect. The project archive includes all project documentation and is created through the close project or phase process. It is not the best choice for this option D is incorrect. The project document updates is not the best choice for thisbe fleshed into the project documents, but the declined changes are part of the change request log.
NEW QUESTION 552
Who is at the BEST authority to develop the priorities and identify what risks and impacts would occur if there were loss of the organization's private information?
- A. Internal auditor
- B. Security management
- C. Business process owners
- D. External regulatory agencies
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
Business process owners are in best position to judge the risks and impact, as they are most knowledgeable concerning their systems. Hence they are most suitable for developing and identifying risks on business.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: Internal auditors, security managers, external regulators would not understand the impact on business to the extent that business owners could. Hence business owner is the best authority.
NEW QUESTION 553
......
What is the duration of the CRISC Exam
- Format: Multiple choices, multiple answers
- Length of Examination: 4 hours
ABCs of CRISC Exam
The Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) test is one of the ISACA gems popular among candidates. Before arriving at the designated testing center, you must have the proper training needed in the four areas underlined in the syllabus, namely, IT Risk Identification, Risk Response Mitigation, IT Risk Identification, as well as Risk, Control Monitoring including Reporting. From there on, you can begin wrestling with the 150 questions in no more than 240 minutes. Passing such an exam will serve beneficial in your future associations with your coworkers, regulators, as well as internal and external stakeholders. Generally, it fits perfectly mid-career specialists who are adept in the world of enterprise risk management and control.
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