Jun-2024 FREE CompTIA N10-008 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPDATES
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CompTIA N10-008, also known as CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam, is a vendor-neutral certification that validates the skills and knowledge required to design, configure, manage, and troubleshoot wired and wireless networks. CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam certification is particularly suitable for professionals who are starting their careers in networking or looking to enhance their skills and knowledge in this field. CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam certification exam covers a variety of topics, including network architecture, network operations, network security, and network troubleshooting.
CompTIA N10-008 exam is a comprehensive certification exam that validates an individual's skills and knowledge in network administration. CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam certification is recognized globally and is ideal for individuals who are looking to advance their careers in the field of networking. With the right preparation and experience, individuals can successfully pass the exam and earn the CompTIA Network+ certification.
CompTIA Network+ certification is highly valued by employers as it demonstrates that the candidate has the necessary skills and knowledge to manage and troubleshoot complex network infrastructures. It is also a prerequisite for many advanced certifications such as the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) and the Microsoft Certified Solutions Expert (MCSE).
NEW QUESTION # 270
Switch 3 was recently added lo an existing stack to extend connectivity to various parts of the network. After the update, new employees were not able to print to the main networked copiers from then workstations. Following are the port configurations for the switch stack in question:
Which of the following should be configured to resolve the issue? (Select TWO).
- A. Enable all ports that are shut down on me stack.
- B. Reconfigure me VLAN on the printer ports on Switch 3.
- C. Reconfigure the VLAN on an printer ports to VLAN 20.
- D. Enable the printer ports on Switch 3.
- E. Reconfigure the duplex settings on the printer ports on Switch 3.
- F. Enable wireless APs on Switch 3.
Answer: B,D
NEW QUESTION # 271
A malicious user is using special software 10 perform an on-path attack. Which of the following best practices should be configured to mitigate this threat?
- A. MAC filtering
- B. Dynamic ARP inspection
- C. Role-based access
- D. Control plane policing
Answer: B
Explanation:
An on-path attack is a type of attack where an attacker intercepts and modifies the traffic between two devices on the same network. One common example of an on-path attack is ARP poisoning, where an attacker sends fake ARP replies to trick the devices into sending their traffic to the attacker instead of the intended destination. This allows the attacker to eavesdrop, alter, or redirect the traffic.
To mitigate this threat, one of the best practices is to use dynamic ARP inspection (DAI), which is a security feature that validates ARP packets on a network. DAI checks the MAC address and IP address bindings in the ARP packets against a trusted database, such as the DHCP snooping table or a static ARP access list. If the ARP packet contains an invalid or spoofed binding, DAI drops the packet and prevents the ARP poisoning attack.
The other options are not as effective as DAI for mitigating on-path attacks. Role-based access is a method of controlling access to resources based on the roles and permissions of the users, but it does not prevent an attacker from spoofing the MAC address or IP address of a legitimate user. Control plane policing is a feature that protects the control plane of a router or switch from excessive or malicious traffic, but it does not verify the MAC address or IP address bindings in the data plane. MAC filtering is a feature that allows or denies access to a network based on the MAC address of the device, but it does not prevent an attacker from spoofing the MAC address of an allowed device.
References:
https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/on-path-attacks/
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2sb/feature/guide/cpp.html
NEW QUESTION # 272
Which of the following BEST describes a north-south traffic flow?
- A. A public internet user accessing a published web server
- B. A Layer 3 switch advertising routes to a router
- C. A management application connecting to managed devices
- D. A database server communicating with another clustered database server
Answer: A
Explanation:
A north-south traffic flow is a term used to describe the communication between a user or device outside the network and a server or service inside the network. For example, a public internet user accessing a published web server is a north-south traffic flow. This type of traffic flow typically crosses the network perimeter and requires security measures such as firewalls and VPNs. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 16; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page
1-9.
North-south traffic flow refers to the flow of traffic between the internal network of an organization and the external world. This type of traffic typically flows from the internet to the organization's internal network, and back again.
Examples of north-south traffic flow include:
* A public internet user accessing a published web server
* A remote employee connecting to a VPN
* An email client sending email to an external server
* A customer connecting to an e-commerce website
References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Objectives, Version 5.0, August 2022, page 12
* CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Seventh Edition, Todd Lammle, Sybex, 2022, page 17
NEW QUESTION # 273
A company wants to set up a backup data center that can become active during a disaster. The site needs to contain network equipment and connectivity. Which of the following strategies should the company employ?
- A. Cold
- B. Warm
- C. Cloud
- D. Active-active
Answer: B
Explanation:
Active-active refers to more than one NIC being active at the same time. This question is referring to a recovery site (hot, warm, cold, cloud).
NEW QUESTION # 274
Which of the following is the MOST effective security control to keep a company's physical perimeter protected against intrusions leveraged by social-engineering techniques?
- A. Access control vestibule
- B. Employee training
- C. Biometric lockers
- D. Motion detection
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most effective security control to keep a company's physical perimeter protected against intrusions leveraged by social-engineering techniques is employee training. Employee training is a process of educating and raising awareness among staff members about security policies, procedures, and best practices. Employee training can help prevent social-engineering attacks, which are attempts to manipulate or deceive people into revealing sensitive information or granting unauthorized access to resources. Social-engineering techniques can include phishing, impersonation, tailgating, dumpster diving, or baiting. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 343; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 13-8.
NEW QUESTION # 275
Which of the following types of data center architectures will MOST likely be used in a large SDN and can be extended beyond the data center?
- A. Top-of-rack switching
- B. Spine and leaf
- C. Three-tiered network
- D. FCoE
- E. iSCSI
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The type of data center architecture that will most likely be used in a large SDN and can be extended beyond the data center is spine and leaf. Spine and leaf is a network topology that consists of two layers of switches:
spine switches and leaf switches. Spine switches are interconnected to each other and form the core of the network, while leaf switches are connected to each spine switch and form the access layer of the network.
Spine and leaf topology provides high scalability, performance, and flexibility for data center networks, especially for SDN (Software Defined Networking) environments that require dynamic traffic flows and virtualization. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 16; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 1-9.
NEW QUESTION # 276
A network administrator needs to set up a file server to allow user access. The organization uses DHCP to assign IP addresses. Which of the following is the best solution for the administrator to set up?
- A. A SLAAC for the server
- B. A static IP address within the DHCP IP range
- C. A separate scope for the file server using a 132 subnet
- D. A reservation for the server based on the MAC address
Answer: D
Explanation:
A reservation for the server based on the MAC address means that the DHCP server will assign a specific IP address to the file server every time it requests one, based on its MAC address. This way, the file server will have a consistent IP address that users can access, without the need to manually configure it or use a separate scope. A reservation also ensures that the IP address of the file server will not be given to any other device by the DHCP server
NEW QUESTION # 277
A wireless technician is working to upgrade the wireless infrastructure for a company. The company currently uses the 802.11g wireless standard on all access points. The company requires backward compatibility and is requesting the least expensive solution. Which of the following should the technician recommend to the company?
- A. 802.11ac
- B. 802Hax
- C. 802.11a
- D. 802.11n
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
802.11n is a wireless standard that supports data rates up to 600 Mbps and operates in both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands. 802.11n is backward compatible with 802.11g, which operates only in 2.4 GHz band. 802.11n is the least expensive solution that can upgrade the wireless infrastructure for the company, as it does not require replacing all the access points or wireless devices
NEW QUESTION # 278
A company is utilizing multifactor authentication for data center access. Which of the following is the MOST effective security mechanism against physical intrusions due to stolen credentials?
- A. Access card readers
- B. Biometrics security hardware
- C. Access control vestibule
- D. Motion detection cameras
Answer: B
Explanation:
* The question asks about the most effective security mechanism against physical intrusions due to stolen credentials for data center access. The company is utilizing multifactor authentication, which is a layered approach to securing data and applications where a system requires a user to present a combination of two or more credentials to verify a user's identity for login1.
* The answer is biometrics security hardware, which is a type of credential that uses the physical characteristics of a user, such as fingerprint, iris, or face, to authenticate the user2. Biometrics security hardware is the most effective security mechanism against physical intrusions due to stolen credentials, because it is difficult to forge, copy, or share biometric data, and it provides a strong link between the user and the identity3.
* Access card readers, access control vestibule, and motion detection cameras are not the correct answers, because they are not the most effective security mechanisms against physical intrusions due to stolen credentials. Access card readers are a type of credential that use a physical token, such as a card or a key, to authenticate the user4. Access card readers are vulnerable to physical intrusions due to stolen credentials, because the cards or keys can be lost, stolen, or duplicated. Access control vestibule is a physical security feature that creates a buffer zone between the outside and the inside of a facility, where users have to pass through two sets of doors and be verified before entering5. Access control vestibule can deter unauthorized access, but it does not prevent physical intrusions due to stolen credentials, because the intruders can still use the stolen credentials to pass through the vestibule. Motion detection cameras are a type of surveillance device that capture images or videos of any movement in a specific area. Motion detection cameras can monitor and record physical intrusions, but they do not prevent them, and they may not be able to identify the intruders if they use disguises or masks. References:
* Multifactor Authentication
* Biometrics Security Hardware
* Biometrics: Advantages for Employee Authentication
* Access Card Readers
* Access Control Vestibule
* [Motion Detection Cameras]
* CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide
NEW QUESTION # 279
An IT technician successfully connects to the corporate wireless network at a hank. While performing some tests, the technician observes that the physical address of the DHCp server has changed even though the network connection has not been lost. Which of the following would BEST explain this change?
- A. Scope exhaustion
- B. Server upgrade
- C. Duplicate IP address
- D. Rogue server
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A rogue server is a DHCP server on a network that is not under the administrative control of the network staff
1. It may provide incorrect IP addresses or other network configuration information to devices on the network, causing them to lose connectivity or be vulnerable to attacks2. The physical address of the DHCP server may change if a rogue server takes over the role of assigning IP addresses to devices on the network. This can be detected by monitoring DHCP traffic or using tools such as RogueChecker2.
NEW QUESTION # 280
The following DHCP scope was configured for a new VLAN dedicated to a large deployment of 325 loT sensors:
The first 244 loT sensors were able to connect to the TFTP server, download the configuration file, and register to an loT management system. The other sensors are being shown as offline. Which of the following should be performed to determine the MOST likely cause of the partial deployment of the sensors?
- A. Check the loT devices for a hardware failure.
- B. Check whether the NTP server is online.
- C. Check the DHCP network scope.
- D. Check the gateway connectivity to the TFTP server.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 281
Which of the following disaster recovery metrics describes the average length of time a piece of equipment can be expected to operate normally?
- A. MTTR
- B. MTBF
- C. RPO
- D. RTO
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
MTBF is the disaster recovery metric that describes the average length of time a piece of equipment can be expected to operate normally. MTBF stands for mean time between failures, which is a measure of the reliability and availability of a device or system. MTBF is calculated by dividing the total operating time by the number of failures that occurred during that time. MTBF indicates how often a device or system fails and how long it can run without interruption. A higher MTBF means a lower failure rate and a longer operational life span. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What Is Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)? | Definition & Examples | Forcepoint
NEW QUESTION # 282
A network administrator is implementing process changes based on recommendations following a recent penetration test. The testers used a method to gain access to the network that involved exploiting a publicly available and fixed remote code execution vulnerability in the VPN appliance. Which of the following should the administrator do to BEST prevent this from happening again?
- A. Create private VLANs for management plane traffic.
- B. Implement robust ACLs with explicit deny-all entries.
- C. Routinely upgrade all network equipment firmware.
- D. Change default passwords on internet-facing hardware.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Firmware is the software that runs on network equipment such as routers, switches, and VPN appliances.
Firmware updates often contain bug fixes, security patches, and performance improvements that can prevent or mitigate vulnerabilities and attacks. By routinely upgrading all network equipment firmware, a network administrator can ensure that the network devices are running the latest and most secure versions of firmware and avoid exploiting known and fixed remote code execution vulnerabilities in the VPN appliance.
References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 462)
NEW QUESTION # 283
Which of the following would be the MOST cost-effective recovery solution for a company's lower- priority applications?
- A. Warm site
- B. Hot site
- C. Cold site
- D. Cloud site
Answer: D
Explanation:
For many companies, the most cost-effective solution is to move processing and data storage to a cloud site.
NEW QUESTION # 284
A SaaS provider has decided to leave an unpatched VM available via a public DMZ port. With which of the following concepts is this technique MOST closely associated?
- A. War driving
- B. Insider threat
- C. Honeypot
- D. Evil twin
Answer: C
Explanation:
A honeypot is a decoy system that is intentionally left vulnerable or exposed to attract attackers and divert them from the real targets. A honeypot can also be used to collect information about the attackers' techniques and motives. In the scenario, the SaaS provider has left an unpatched VM available via a public DMZ port, which could be a honeypot technique to lure attackers and monitor their activities. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-honeypot
NEW QUESTION # 285
Two companies want to build an encrypted tunnel between them and use a PSK for initial authentication.
Which of the following is the BEST protocol for the companies to use?
- A. VPN
- B. IPSec
- C. TLS
- D. SSL
Answer: B
Explanation:
IPSec is a protocol that provides secure communication between two networks or hosts over an untrusted network, such as the Internet. IPSec uses encryption and authentication to protect the data from eavesdropping, tampering, and replay attacks. IPSec also supports pre-shared key (PSK) as one of the methods for initial authentication between the peers
NEW QUESTION # 286
Which of the following routing protocols uses bandwidth and delay as the primary metrics to calculate the best path?
- A. OSPF
- B. RIP
- C. BGP
- D. EIGRP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) uses bandwidth and delay as its primary metrics to determine the best path for routing traffic. EIGRP is an advanced distance-vector routing protocol, which is proprietary to Cisco systems, making it highly efficient in a variety of network designs. It can also utilize load, reliability, and maximum transmission unit (MTU) as additional metrics, but bandwidth and delay are the primary considerations in its composite metric calculation. Other protocols listed, such as RIP, OSPF, and BGP, use different metrics like hop count (RIP) and cost based on link state (OSPF), or make decisions based on path attributes and policy (BGP).
NEW QUESTION # 287
The following configuration is applied to a DHCP server connected to a VPN concentrator:
There are 300 non-concurrent sales representatives who log in for one hour a day to upload reports, and 252 of these representatives are able to connect to the VPN without any Issues. The remaining sales representatives cannot connect to the VPN over the course of the day. Which of the following can be done to resolve the issue without utilizing additional resources?
- A. Reboot the DHCP server
- B. Install a new VPN concentrator
- C. Configure a new router
- D. Decrease the lease duration
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 288
A network technician needs to ensure the company's external mail server can pass reverse lookup checks.
Which of the following records would the technician MOST likely configure? (Choose Correct option and give explanation directly from CompTIA Network+ Study guide or documents)
- A. CNAME
- B. SPF
- C. AAAA
- D. PTR
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A PTR (Pointer) record is used to map an IP address to a domain name, which is necessary for reverse lookup checks. Reverse lookup checks are performed by external mail servers to verify the identity of the sender of the email. By configuring a PTR record, the network technician can ensure that the company's external mail server can pass these checks. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, "A PTR record is used to map an IP address to a domain name, and it is often used for email authentication."
NEW QUESTION # 289
Which of the following transceiver types can support up to 40Gbps?
- A. QSFP+
- B. SFP
- C. QSFP
- D. SFP+
Answer: A
Explanation:
SFP = 1Gbps
SFP+ = 10 Gbps
QSFP = 4xSFP = 4 Gbps
QSFP+ = 4xSFP = 40 Gbps
NEW QUESTION # 290
A network technician is hired to review all the devices within a network and make recommendations to improve network efficiency. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST before reviewing and making any recommendations?
- A. Perform an environmental review.
- B. Read the network logs
- C. Run a bandwidth test
- D. Capture a network baseline
Answer: D
Explanation:
Before making any recommendations, a network technician should first capture a network baseline, which is a snapshot of the current performance of the network. This will give the technician a baseline to compare against after any changes are made. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, the technician should "capture the state of the network before making any changes and then compare the performance after the changes have been made. This will provide an accurate baseline to compare the performance of the network before and after the changes have been made."
NEW QUESTION # 291
A user tries to ping 192.168.1.100 from the command prompt on the 192.168.2.101 network but gets the following response: U.U.U.U. Which of the following needs to be configured for these networks to reach each other?
- A. Default gateway
- B. Routing protocol
- C. Loopback
- D. Network address translation
Answer: A
Explanation:
A default gateway is a device that routes traffic from one network to another network, such as the Internet.
A default gateway is usually configured on each host device to specify the IP address of the router that connects the host's network to other networks.
In this case, the user's device and the destination device are on different networks (192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.2.0/24), so the user needs to configure a default gateway on their device to reach the destination device. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0), https://www.techopedia.com/definition/25761/default-gateway
NEW QUESTION # 292
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